So, I couldn't sleep last night, and got up to research peristalsis... yes, I have been obsessing on peristalsis lately for some reason... say it three times fast... and I found this-
Orexin stimulates the secretion of luteinizing hormone which triggers ovulation, the release of the ovum from the follicle. That stimulates the corpus leuteum and oxytocin, and oxytocin stimulates uterine peristalsis. This problem may be be a result of, or exacerbated by, orexin deficiency in the luteal phase.Women with infertility and mostly mild endometriosis display a uterine hyperperistalsis with nearly double the frequency of contractions during the early and mid- as well as midluteal phase in comparison to the fertile and healthy controls. During midcycle these women display a considerable uterine dysperistalsis in that the normally long and regular cervico-fundal contractions during this phase of the cycle have become more or less undirected and convulsive in character. Hyperperistalsis results in the transport of inert particles from the cervix into the tubes within minutes already during the early follicular phase, and may therefore constitute the mechanical cause for the development of endometriosis in that it transports detached endometrial cells and tissue fragments via the tubes into the peritoneal cavity. Moreover, dysperistalsis may contribute to the infertility in these patients since it results in a break down of sperm transport within the female genital tract.
Even if the ovum is viable, it may not get to the right place.
Update: My MIL wants a translation of this post... sorry I'm obtuse!
Orexin stimulates the release of the ovum from the ovary. So lowered orexin levels can probably cause infertility by diminishing the number of viable ova.
This article says infertile women often have impaired peristalsis of the uterus. The contractions are not rythmic.
My thought is... the follicle left over after ovulation stimulates oxytocin production. Oxytocin stimulates the smooth sequential muscle contractions of peristalsis.
So lowered orexin levels may also contribute to infertility by producing inferior follicles and interfering with oxytocin production resulting in inadequate movement of any viable eggs to the uterus.
Is that better?
Update: My MIL wants a translation of this post... sorry I'm obtuse!
Orexin stimulates the release of the ovum from the ovary. So lowered orexin levels can probably cause infertility by diminishing the number of viable ova.
This article says infertile women often have impaired peristalsis of the uterus. The contractions are not rythmic.
My thought is... the follicle left over after ovulation stimulates oxytocin production. Oxytocin stimulates the smooth sequential muscle contractions of peristalsis.
So lowered orexin levels may also contribute to infertility by producing inferior follicles and interfering with oxytocin production resulting in inadequate movement of any viable eggs to the uterus.
Is that better?
